Aerodynamics 1 ) What must a pilot be aware of as a results of ground effect? a) Induced drag decreases, therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating. b) Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft. c) A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall done free of ground effect. Aerodynamics 2 ) An aircraft said to be inherently stable will a) be difficult to stall b) not spin c) require less effort to control Airspace 3 ) Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from a) 700' above the surface up to an including 17,999' MSL b) 1,200' above the surface up to and including 17,999' MSL c) the surface up to and including 18,000' MSL Flight Operations 4 ) The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is a) light, dirty and fast b) heavy, clean and slow c) heavy, dirty and fast Aircraft Performance 5) What effect does high density altitude as compared to low density altitude have on propeller efficiency and why? a) Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades b) Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air c) Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitude than at low density altitude Weather 6 ) For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the earth's surface of the a) lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast. b) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. c) lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken or thin. Flight Operations 7 ) How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day? a) Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer. b) Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil. c) Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command. Regulations 8 ) The definition of nighttime is a) sunset to sunrise b) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise c) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight Regulations 9 ) May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? a) yes, ADs are only voluntary b) yes, if allowed by the AD c) yes, under VFR conditions only Regulations 10 ) Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non controlled airport? a) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary. b) Make all turns to the left. c) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. Regulations 11 ) After landing at a tower controlled airport a pilot should contact ground control a) when advised by the tower. b) prior to turning off the runway. c) after reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area. Weather 12 ) A pilot can expect a wind sheer zone in a temperature inversion whenever the wind speed at 2,000 to 4,000' above the surface is at least a) 10 kts b) 15 kts c) 25 kts Weather 13 ) You can expect fog, dew or clouds to always form when a) water vapor condenses b) water vapor is present c) relative humidity reaches 100 percent Aircraft Performance 14) Maximum endurance is obtained at the point of minimum power to maintain the aircraft a) in steady, level flight b) in a long descent c) slowest possible airspeed Communications 15) The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is a) five thousand, five hundred feet. b) five point five. c) five thousand, five hundred. Flight Operations 16) You have just landed at an airport with a control tower and tower tells you to contact ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when a) all parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line. b) the aircraft cockpit is clear of the hold line. c) the tail of the aircraft is clear of the runway edge. Flight Operations 17) A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a a) pulsating white light b) steady white light c) pulsating red light Aircraft Performance 18) Problems caused by overloading an aircraft include a) excessive structural loads, shortened cruising range and reduced climb rate. b) slower takeoff speed, shorter takeoff roll and increased maneuverability. c) increased cruising speed, increased angle of climb and increased service ceiling Regulations 19) Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage a) which requires repairs to landing gear. b) is caused to the aircraft in a hangar fire. c) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics. Aerodynamics 20) The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will a) increase if the CG is moved forward. b) remain the same regardless of gross weight. c) change with an increase in gross weight. 21 ) What is the CTAF Freq for Brookhaven Lincoln CO airport? a) 123.0 b) 122.8 c) 122.9 22) What is the elevation at Brookhaven Lincoln CO airport? a) 795 MSL b) 807 MSL c) 489 MSL 23) What is the MSL elevation of the tower located approximately 3nm East of the airport? a) 795 MSL b) 310 MSL c) 862 MSL 24) What is the AGL elevation of the tower located approximately 3nm East of the airport? a) 795 AGL b) 310 AGL c) 862 AGL 25) What is the airport identifier for Brookhaven Lincoln CO? a) 2R6 b) HZR c) 1R7 26) What is the length of the runway at Brookhaven Lincoln CO? a) 3000 feet b) 4000 feet c) 5000 feet 27) Is fuel available at Brookhaven Lincoln CO? a) yes b) no c) not indicated 28) Brookhaven Lincoln CO airport is located in what type of airspace? a) Class D b) Class E c) Class G 29) What is the floor of the airspace at Brookhaven Lincoln CO airport? a) 1200 feet above the surface b) 700 feet MSL c) 700 feet above the surface 30) The town of Wesson is located approximately how many miles north of the airport? a) 5 nm b) 8 nm c) 12 nm Airspace and Weather Minimums 41 ) An airports rotating beacon operated during daylight hours often indicates a) there are obstructions on the airport. b) the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. c) the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation. Airspace and Weather Minimums 42) Sport pilot minimum flight visibility for Class E airspace less than 10,000 feet MSL is a) 2,000 feet horizontally b) 3 statute miles c) 3 nautical miles Airspace and Weather Minimums 43) The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally a) 1,200 feet AGL b) 3,000 feet AGL c) 4,000 feet AGL Airspace and Weather Minimums 44) The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is a) 5 nm b) 15 nm c) 20 nm Airspace and Weather Minimums 45) A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace? a) Class B b) Class C c) Class D Airspace and Weather Minimums 46) Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only a) when the prevailing visibility is below 3 statute miles. b) when the associated control tower is in operation. c) when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation. Airspace and Weather Minimums 47) One of the purposes for issuing a Temporary Flight restriction (TFR) is to a) announce parachute jump areas b) protect public figures c) identify Airport Advisory Areas Airspace and Weather Minimums 48) Who is responsible for collision avoidance in a Military Operations Area? a) Each Pilot b) ATC Controllers c) Military Controllers Airspace and Weather Minimums 49) Outside controlled airspace the minimum flight visibility requirements for a sport pilot flying VFR above 1200' AGL and below 10,000' MSL during daylight hours is a) 1 sm b) 3 sm c) 5 sm Airspace and Weather Minimums 50) During operations within Class E airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200' AGL the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is a) 500' b) 1,000' c) 2,000' Time 51) What is the new term being used for Greenwich Mean Time GMT? a) Eastern Standard Time b) Greenwich Time c) Coordinated Universal Time UTC Time Conversion 52) To convert UTC to Eastern Standard Time you would a) add 5 hrs b) subtract 5 hrs c) subtract 6 hrs Time Conversion 53) To convert UTC to Eastern Daylight Time you would a) add 4 hrs b) subtract 4 hrs c) subtract 5 hrs Time Conversion 54) To convert UTC to Central Standard Time you would a) add 7 hrs b) subtract 7 hrs c) subtract 6 hrs Time Conversion 55) To convert UTC to Central Daylight Time you would a) add 5 hrs b) subtract 5 hrs c) subtract 6 hrs Time Conversion 56) To convert UTC to Mountain Standard Time you would a) subtract 7 hrs b) subtract 6 hrs c) add 6 hrs Time Conversion 57) To convert UTC to Mountain Daylight Time you would a) add 7 hrs b) subtract 7 hrs c) subtract 6 hrs Time Conversion 58) To convert UTC to Pacific Standard Time you would a) add 8 hrs b) subtract 8 hrs c) subtract 7 hrs Time Conversion 59) To convert UTC to Pacific Daylight Time you would a) subtract 7 hrs b) subtract 8 hrs c) add 8 hrs Time Conversion 60) Converting 11:00 UTC to Central Daylight Time it would be a) 05:00 CDT b) 06:00 CDT c) 07:00 CDT Aerodynamics 61 ) Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. a) Power, pitch, bank and trim b) Thrust, lift, turns and glide c) Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs and descents Aerodynamics 62) The direct cause of every stall is excessive a) angle of attack b) density altitude c) upward vertical velocity Aerodynamics 63) What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust and weight when in straight-and-level flight a) lift and weight equals thrust and drag b) lift, drag and weight equal thrust c) lift equals weight and thrust equals drag Aerodynamics 64) The best speed to use for a glide is one that will results in the greatest glide distance for a given amount of a) fuel b) altitude c) drag Aerodynamics 65) Climb performance depends on the a) reserve power or thrust b) cruise power setting c) maximum L/D ratio Flight Operations 66) What wind condition prolongs the hazard of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? a) Light, quartering headwind b) Direct tailwind c) Light, quartering tailwind Flight Operations 67) What is absolute altitude? a) height above the standard datum plane b) vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface c) altitude read directly from the altimeter Flight Operations 68) Filling the fuel tank after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will a) prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks b) prevent expansion of fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks c) force any existing water to the top of the tank Flight Operations 69) When taxing with a strong quartering tailwind, which aileron position should be used? a) aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing b) neutral c) aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing Flight Operations 70) One purpose of the dual ignition system on a two cycle engine is to provide for a) uniform heat distribution b) system redundancy in the ignition system c) balanced cylinder head pressure